STATE OF JHARKHANDversusDR. NISHKANT DUBEY & ORS.
- Citation
- 2025 INSC 94
- Decided
- 21 January 2025
- Disposal
- Dismissed
- Bench
- ABHAY S OKA
Holding
The Supreme Court held that Sections 336, 447 and 448 IPC do not apply as the respondents neither acted rashly nor committed criminal trespass, and that cognizance of offences under the Aircraft Act, 1934 must be taken only via a complaint by an authorised aviation officer, rendering the FIR void.
Summary
The State of Jharkhand filed an FIR alleging that Dr. Nishkant Dubey and others forcibly entered the Air Traffic Control (ATC) room at Deoghar Airport, exerted pressure on officials, and caused an unsafe take‑off, invoking Sections 336, 447 and 448 of the IPC and Sections 10 and 11A of the Aircraft Act. The High Court quashed the FIR on the ground that the allegations did not constitute offences under the IPC and that the special procedure under the Aircraft Act must be followed. On appeal, the Supreme Court examined whether the conduct attracted the IPC provisions, whether it amounted to criminal trespass, and whether the special law’s procedure prevails over general criminal law. The Court held that the respondents merely requested ATC clearance, did not act rashly or negligently, and no criminal intent for trespass was shown; thus Sections 336, 447 and 448 IPC were inapplicable. It further affirmed that the Aircraft Act, 1934 is a complete code and cognizance of offences under it can only be taken on a complaint by an authorised aviation officer, limiting police powers. Consequently, the appeals were dismissed, with liberty to the State to forward the investigation material to the authorised officer under the Aircraft Act.
Issues considered
- What are the essential conditions for the provisions of Section 336 IPC to be attracted?
- Whether the alleged entry into the ATC room constitutes criminal trespass under Sections 441, 447 and 448 IPC.
- Whether the special procedure under the Aircraft Act, 1934 overrides the general procedure under the IPC and CrPC for taking cognizance of the alleged offences.
Legislation cited
- Aircraft Act, 1934s. 10, s. 11A, s. 12B, s. 4, s. 4A, s. 4B, s. 4C, s. 5
- Aircraft Rules, 1937s. Rule 4, s. Rule 90
- Airport (Security) Rules, 2011s. Rule 14(ix)
- Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973s. 154, s. 173, s. 190(1)(d)
- Constitution of Indias. Article 226
- Indian Penal Code, 1860s. 336, s. 366, s. 441, s. 447, s. 448
Headnote
Issue for Consideration What are the essential conditions that must be satisfied to attract the provisions of Section 366 of the IPC? What are the essentials to constitute a trespass as criminal trespass? Whether the procedure provided under the general law will be attracted if the special law Headnotes† Respondents boarded a chartered plane to travel from Deoghar Airport – Air Traffic Controller denied the permission for take-off – Pilot along with other respondents barged into the room of ATC and exerted pressure – ATC clearance was given and Chartered
Subjects
Judgment
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1909 : 2025 INSC 94
State of Jharkhand
v.
Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
(Criminal Appeal No. 5475 of 2024)
21 January 2025
[Abhay S. Oka and Manmohan,* JJ.]
Issue for Consideration
What are the essential conditions that must be satisfied to attract
the provisions of Section 366 of the IPC?
What are the essentials to constitute a trespass as criminal
trespass?
Whether the procedure provided under the general law will be
attracted if the special law provides for a special procedure?
Headnotes†
Respondents boarded a chartered plane to travel from Deoghar
Airport – Air Traffic Controller denied the permission for
take-off – Pilot along with other respondents barged into the
room of ATC and exerted pressure – ATC clearance was given
and Chartered flight took off at 18:17 hours – F.I.R was lodged
against respondents – High court quashed the F.I.R being
abuse of process of law – Appellant filed appeals challenging
the Judgement – Supreme Court dismissed appeals with liberty
to appellant. [Paras 1, 2 and 42]
Penal Code, 1860 – Section 336 – To attract the provision, it
must be alleged that the accused has done the act in question
rashly and negligently and it was such as to endanger the life
and liberty or personal safety of the others:
Held: Section 336 IPC seeks to punish a person who does an
act rashly or negligently and endangers human life or personal
safety of others – To attract Section 336 IPC, the prosecution must
allege that the accused did the act in question; that it was done
rashly or negligently and that it was such as to endanger the life
* Author
1910 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
or personal safety of others – In the facts of the present case,
the Respondents-accused persons were only asking the ATC to
grant permission for take-off – This Court is of the view that the
action of the pilot and the passengers talking to ATC officials in
the present case cannot be construed as creating undue or illegal
pressure on ATC officials – Moreover, as the aircraft carrying
the Respondents-accused persons had taken off after obtaining
ATC permission, it cannot be said that the Respondents-accused
persons acted rashly or negligently so as to endanger human
lives – Consequently, Section 336 IPC is not attracted to the
present case. [Paras 33 and 34]
Penal Code, 1860 – Sections 441, 447 and 448 – Every trespass
is not itself criminal – To constitute an offence of criminal
trespass prosecution has to allege that the trespass was
committed with one of the intents enumerated in Section 441
IPC – No allegation of forcible entry or intimidation or insult
or annoyance has been made by any official of ATC:
Held: It is settled law that every trespass by itself is not criminal –
To constitute criminal trespass, the prosecution has to allege that
the trespass was committed with one of the intents enumerated
in Section 441 IPC – Accordingly, the prosecution has to prove
that the complainant had possession of the property in question
and that the accused entered into or upon the property; or after
having lawfully entered unlawfully remained there with the intention
(a) to commit an offence; or (b) to intimidate, insult, or annoy the
person in possession – In the absence of any such allegation, the
offence under Section 441/447 IPC cannot be sustained. [Para 35]
In the present case, no allegation of forcible entry or intimidation
or insult or annoyance has been made by any official of ATC – On
the contrary, the Director of Deogarh Airport has been arrayed as
an accused in the FIR – Consequently, Section 447 IPC is not
attracted to the present case – Also, as the ATC office is not a
place used as a human dwelling or a place of worship or a place
for the custody of goods, the ingredients of Section 448 IPC are
not attracted to the present case. [Paras 36, 37]
The Aircraft Act, 1934 – Any special law having special
jurisdiction, power or procedure shall prevail over general
law – The Aircraft Act, 1934 and the rules framed thereunder
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1911
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
constitute a complete code and its Section 12B is in the nature
of a pre-condition for taking cognizance by a court, the local
police can only forward the material collected by it to such
authorised officer:
Held: The Aircraft Act, 1934 as well as the Rules framed thereunder
[including Rule 14(ix) of Airport (Security) Rules, 2011] are a
complete Code which deals with safety and security of civil aviation
and aerodrome – The Aircraft Act, 1934 also prescribes a special
procedure for taking cognizance of any offence punishable under
the Aircraft Act, 1934, i.e., the complaint must be made by or with
the prior sanction of the Aviation authorities – Section 12B is in
the nature of a pre-condition for taking cognizance by a Court –
Clause (2) of Section 4 and Section 5 of the Code provide that
special form of procedure would prevail – Consequently, as a
complaint can be made/filed by an authorised officer alone under
the Special Act, i.e. the Aircrafts Act, 1934, before the concerned
Court, the local police can only forward the material collected by
it during the investigation to such authorised officer. [Paras 39-41]
Case Law Cited
Navi Mumbai Environment Preservation Society and Anr. v.
Ministry of Environment, Division Bench of Bombay High Court,
PIL No.218/2013 dated 22nd December, 2016; State (NCT) of
Delhi v. Sanjay [2014] 9 SCR 1063 : (2014) 9 SCC 772; Jayant
& Ors. v. State of Madhya Pradesh [2020] 11 SCR 665 : (2021)
2 SCC 670 – referred to.
State of Haryana & Ors. v. Bhajan Lal & Ors. [1990] Supp. 3 SCR
259 : (1992) Supp. 1 SCC 335 – followed.
List of Acts
Penal Code,1860; Aircraft Act, 1934; Constitution of India, 1950;
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; Aircraft Rules, 1937; Airport
(Security) Rules, 2011.
List of Keywords
Quashing of FIR; Air Traffic Control; First Information Report; Special
Law, Local Law; Trespass, Civil Aviation; Aerodrome; Investigation;
Cognizance; Complaint.
1912 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
Case Arising From
CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Criminal Appeal No.
5475 of 2024
From the Judgment and Order dated 13.03.2023 of the High Court
of Jharkhand at Ranchi in WPCRL No. 448 of 2022
With
Criminal Appeal No(s). 5476 and 5477 of 2024
Appearances for Parties
Arunabh Chowdhury, Sr. Adv., Ms. Pragya Baghel, Jayant Mohan,
Karma Dorjee, Dechen Wangadi Lachungpa, Ms. Adya Shree
Dutta, Advs. for the Appellant.
Maninder Singh, Siddharth Bhatnagar, Sr. Advs., Ankit Yadav,
Ms. Shaoni Das, Rishi K Awasthi, Mahesh Agarwala, Anshuman
Srivastava, Victor Das, Shashwat Singh, Shivani Agrawal, Punit
Yadav, Piyush Vatsa, Amit Vikram Awasthi, Abhinav Sharma, Punit
Vinay, Advs. for the Respondents.
Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court
Judgment
Manmohan, J.
1. Present appeals have been filed challenging the judgment and order
dated 13th March, 2023 passed by the High Court of Jharkhand at
Ranchi allowing the writ petitions filed by the Respondents herein and
quashing the First Information Report (‘FIR’) being Deoghar Kunda
P.S. Case No.169 of 2022 registered against the Respondents-
accused persons for commission of alleged offences under Sections
336, 447 and 448 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 (‘IPC’) and Sections
10 and 11A of the Aircraft Act, 1934 holding that the FIR is vitiated by
mala fides and allowing the proceedings to continue would amount to
abuse of law. The High Court of Jharkhand at Ranchi while quashing
the FIR has held as under:-
“26. In view of the above facts, reasons and analysis and
considering that Aircraft took off after permission of the
ATC, Aircraft Act, 1934 is itself complete code and there are
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1913
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
procedure prescribed therein to lodge the complaint and of
the enquiry, in view of the Act, the competent authority has
not complained anything, even Airport Director has been
made accused and even the two sons of the petitioner
no. 1 has not been spared and considering that when the
Special Act is there, Sections of Indian Penal Code are
not attracted, petitioner no.1 and 4 in W.P.(Cr.) No. 448
of 2022 are Member of Parliament and petitioner no.1 is
Chairman of the Airport Advisory Committee of Deoghar
Airport and petitioner no.4 is also a member of the Standing
Committee, Civil Aviation, further considering the materials
on record which suggests that several cases have been
lodged against the petitioner no.1 in W.P.(Cr.) No. 448 of
2022 which have been quashed by this Court and some
judgments are affirmed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court,
it transpires that F.I.R. has been lodged malafidely and
allowing to continue the proceeding will amount the abuse
of process of law, accordingly, the F.I.R. bearing Deoghar
Kunda P.S. Case No. 169 of 2022 including the entire
criminal proceeding registered under sections 336, 447
and 448 of the Indian Penal Code and section 10 and 11A
of the Airport Act, 1934, pending in the Court of learned
Sub Divisional Magistrate, Dumka, is hereby quashed.”
FACTS
2. The facts, as mentioned in the FIR, are that on 31st August, 2022 at
17:25 hours, the Respondents-accused persons boarded a chartered
plane to travel from Deoghar Airport. After some time, the door of
the plane opened and the pilot came down and moved towards
the Air Traffic Control (‘ATC’) room as the Air Traffic Controller had
denied permission for take-off. Learned counsel for Appellant-State
of Jharkhand stated that the first informant who was Security-in-
charge in Deoghar Airport followed the pilot and when he entered
the ATC room, he saw that the pilot was creating pressure for giving
Respondents-accused persons clearance for take-off at the earliest.
Thereafter, the other Respondents-accused persons also barged into
the ATC room and created pressure for the clearance to be given
to them. According to the learned counsel for the Appellant-State of
Jharkhand, pursuant to the pressure exerted by the Respondents-
1914 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
accused persons, the ATC clearance was given and the chartered
flight took-off at 18:17 hours even when the sunset time on that day
was 18:03 hours.
ARGUMENTS ON BEHALF OF APPELLANT-STATE OF JHARKHAND
3. Learned counsel for the Appellant-State of Jharkhand stated that the
ATC room is a restricted area and the Respondents-accused persons
forcefully trespassed and entered the ATC room which was a serious
security breach and the Respondents-accused persons threatened
the ATC officers and coerced them to give permission for take-off.
He stated that the ATC had denied clearance/permission to chartered
flight to take-off from Deoghar Airport due to low visibility and bad
weather conditions. He pointed out that the Deoghar Airport does
not have the facility of night operation. He stated that by forcefully
obtaining the ATC clearance by threatening and creating pressure on
the ATC officers, the chartered flight with the Respondents-accused
persons on board, took-off at 18:17 hours i.e., after sunset.
4. He submitted that there was a clear violation of Rule 14(ix) of
Airport (Security) Rules, 2011 which empowers the Security Officer
to supervise the movement of persons in the restricted areas. He
contended that the said Rules of 2011 have been promulgated
in exercise of powers under Section 4 read with Section 5 of the
Aircraft Act, 1934. Section 5(2)(gc) of the Aircraft Act, 1934 permits
the Central Government to make rules to provide for “the measures
to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference”.
5. He submitted that the High Court of Jharkhand failed to appreciate that
the bar under Section 12B of the Aircraft Act, 1934 will get triggered
and come into play only after the investigation is complete and the
result of investigation in the form of the Final Report/Chargesheet
is filed before the competent Court. According to him, Section 12B
does not bar the police from registering an FIR and consequently
conducting investigation arising out of the FIR.
6. He pointed out that in the context of prosecution under the
Environment Protection Act, 1986 which, by virtue of Section 19,
mandates that no Court shall take cognizance of an offence under
this Act except on complaint made by the officers specified therein,
the Division Bench of the Bombay High Court in Navi Mumbai
Environment Preservation Society and Anr. vs. Ministry of
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1915
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
Environment (PIL No.218/2013) dated 22nd December, 2016
has after considering the judgment of this Court in State (NCT) of
Delhi vs. Sanjay, (2014) 9 SCC 772 held that the offence under
Section 15(1) of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 is a cognizable
offence and therefore, the police can register the FIR under Section
154(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (for short ‘Code’).
The Division Bench of the Bombay High Court (speaking through
one of us Hon’ble Mr. Justice A.S. Oka as his Lordship then was)
held, “Therefore, if FIR is registered by the Police for the offence
punishable under Section 15 of the Act of 1956, the registration
of offence and investigation carried out by the police is not per se
vitiated. A complaint can be made/filed by authorized officer under
Clause (a) of Section 19 before the concerned Court. While filing a
complaint, the authorized officer can always rely upon the material
collected by the police during the investigation. The Complaint can
include the material collected by the police during the investigation
carried out on the basis of the FIR.” He pointed out that the High
Court of Bombay in the said case, inter alia, issued the following
interim direction at para 15(iii):-
“(III) We clarify that registration of offences by the Police
under Sub-Section (1) of Section 15 of the said Act of
1986 and the investigation carried out thereon is not
per se illegal. The officers authorized under clause (a)
of Section 19 can always file complaints in accordance
with the said Code by relying upon the material collected
during the investigation and material forming part of the
charge sheet prepared by the Police.”
7. He further submitted that the finding of the High Court of Jharkhand
in the impugned judgment that the Aircraft Act, 1934 is a Special
Act and a complete Code in itself and therefore, IPC offences are
not attracted, is erroneous and is in the teeth of the law laid down
by this Court in State (NCT of Delhi) Vs. Sanjay (supra) and in
Jayant & Ors. Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh, (2021) 2 SCC 670.
The relevant portion of the judgment relied upon in State (NCT of
Delhi) Vs. Sanjay (supra) is reproduced herein below:-
“69. Considering the principles of interpretation and the
wordings used in Section 22, in our considered opinion,
the provision is not a complete and absolute bar for taking
1916 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
action by the police for illegal and dishonestly committing
theft of minerals including sand from the riverbed….
xxx xxx xxx xxx
72. From a close reading of the provisions of the MMDR
Act and the offence defined under Section 378 IPC, it is
manifest that the ingredients constituting the offence are
different. The contravention of terms and conditions of
mining lease or doing mining activity in violation of Section
4 of the Act is an offence punishable under Section 21
of the MMDR Act, whereas dishonestly removing sand,
gravel and other minerals from the river, which is the
property of the State, out of the State’s possession without
the consent, constitute an offence of theft. Hence, merely
because initiation of proceeding for commission of an
offence under the MMDR Act on the basis of complaint
cannot and shall not debar the police from taking action
against persons for committing theft of sand and minerals
in the manner mentioned above by exercising power
under the Code of Criminal Procedure and submit a report
before the Magistrate for taking cognizance against such
persons. In other words, in a case where there is a theft
of sand and gravel from the government land, the police
can register a case, investigate the same and submit a
final report under Section 173 CrPC before a Magistrate
having jurisdiction for the purpose of taking cognizance
as provided in Section 190(1)(d) of the Code of Criminal
Procedure.
73. After giving our thoughtful consideration in the matter,
in the light of the relevant provisions of the Act vis-à-vis
the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Penal Code, we
are of the definite opinion that the ingredients constituting
the offence under the MMDR Act and the ingredients of
dishonestly removing sand and gravel from the riverbeds
without consent, which is the property of the State, is a
distinct offence under IPC. Hence, for the commission
of offence under Section 378 IPC, on receipt of the
police report, the Magistrate having jurisdiction can take
cognizance of the said offence without awaiting the receipt
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1917
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
of complaint that may be filed by the authorised officer
for taking cognizance in respect of violation of various
provisions of the MMDR Act. Consequently, the contrary
view taken by the different High Courts cannot be sustained
in law and, therefore, overruled. Consequently, these
criminal appeals are disposed of with a direction to the
Magistrates concerned to proceed accordingly.”
8. He also submitted that in the impugned judgment, the High Court of
Jharkhand erroneously adjudicated upon disputed questions of facts
even when the investigation was at a nascent stage.
9. He lastly submitted that the High Court of Jharkhand had conducted
a mini trial while deciding the writ petition under Article 226 of the
Constitution of India.
ARGUMENTS ON BEHALF OF THE RESPONDENTS-ACCUSED
10. Per contra, learned senior counsel for the Respondents-accused
persons stated that the Respondent No.1 is a sitting and three-
time Member of Parliament and Chairman of the Airport Advisory
Committee, Deoghar Airport. He stated that Respondent No.1 was
accompanied amongst others by Respondent No.4 (also a sitting
Member of Parliament and a Member of Standing Committee, Civil
Aviation) when his flight landed from New Delhi at Deoghar Airport.
He stated that in his capacity as Chairman of the Airport Advisory
Committee, Respondent No.1 disembarked from the aircraft, met
the Director of the Deoghar Airport and reviewed the functioning of
the airport and operational issues like night landing.
11. He contended that this routine meeting has been falsely represented
by the Appellant-State of Jharkhand as a forcible trespass of the ATC
room at the Deoghar Airport. He further contended that the FIR was
premised on completely incorrect facts, was illegal and mala fide for
the following reasons:
S.NO. REASON PARTICULARS
1. Alleged offence governed Procedure under Section 12B of the
by the provisions of Aircraft Act, 1934 – Precondition of
Section 12B of the complaint to be made by/with sanction
Aircraft Act. of the relevant Aviation Authorities has
been completely bypassed.
1918 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
2. FIR premised on an The basis of the FIR was that the
incorrect legal basis. Aircraft could be operated only till 17:30
hrs. This position is legally flawed and
completely incorrect.
Rule 4 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937 clearly
defines flight by night as, inter alia, a
flight performed between the period of
half an hour after sunset. As per FIR,
on the day of alleged incident, i.e.,
31st August, 2022, the sunset was at
18:03 hours.
As per the Petitioner’s own affidavit
before the High Court (para 6 at page
128 of SLP), the flight took off at 18:17
hours after the clearance from Kolkata
ATC.
Therefore, the flight take-off, being
within the period of half an hour after
sunset, was legal and proper.
3. Allegation in FIR of The clearance for take-off was given by
forcible entry into the the ATC, Kolkata. The ATC at Deoghar
ATC Room, Deoghar Airport neither had the authority nor
Airport and pressure the control to grant take-off clearance.
exerted to obtain ATC There is no allegation that the answering
clearance. Respondent tried to influence take-off
clearance from the ATC-Kolkata.
12. Learned senior counsel for the Respondents-accused persons
submitted that the provisions of the Aircraft Act, 1934 being special
law shall prevail over the Code being the general law. He pointed out
that Entry 29 of the List I of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
of India states as follows:-
“29. Airways; aircraft and air navigation; provision of
aerodromes; regulation and organization of air traffic and
aerodromes; provision for aeronautical education and
training and regulation of such education and training
provided by States and other agencies.”
13. He pointed out that Section 4A of the Aircraft Act, 1934 prescribes for
the constitution of a body to be known as the “Directorate General
of Civil Aviation”. Under sub-Section (2) thereof, it is provided that:
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1919
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
“(2) The Directorate General of Civil Aviation shall be
responsible for carrying out the safety oversight of
regulatory functions in respect of matters specified in this
Act or the rules made thereunder.”
14. Similarly, under Section 4B of the Aircraft Act, 1934 a “Bureau of
Civil Aviation Security” has been constituted. Under sub-section (2)
thereof, it is stated that:
“(2) The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security shall be
responsible for carrying out the regulatory and oversight
functions in respect of matter relating to civil aviation
security specified in this Act or the rules made thereunder.”
15. He stated that under Section 4C of the Aircraft Act, 1934, a provision
has been made for constituting a body named as “Aircraft Accidents
Investigation Bureau”. Under sub-Section (2) thereof, it is provided
that:
“(2) The Aircraft Accidents Investigation Bureau shall be
responsible for carrying out the functions in respect of
matters relating to investigation of aircraft accidents or
incidents specified in this Act or the rules made thereunder.”
16. Further, under Section 5 of the Aircraft Act, 1934, the Central Government
may make rules for regulating the manufacture, possession, use,
operation, sale, import or export of any aircraft or class of aircraft and
for securing the safety of aircraft operations. Among several subjects,
the Central Government can frame rules in relation to:
i. the measures to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful
interference, under sub-clause (gc) of Section 5;
ii. safety oversight and regulatory functions, under sub-clause
(qb); and
iii. regulatory and oversight functions in respect of matters relating
to civil aviation security, under sub-clause (qc).
17. According to learned senior counsel for the Respondents-accused
persons, a necessary concomitant which flows from the combined
reading of the above is that the safety and security of the civil aviation
is completely governed under the Aircraft Act, 1934 and the Rules
framed thereunder. At this stage, he referred to Rule 90 of the Aircraft
Rules, 1937, which reads as under:-
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“90. Entry into public aerodromes. –
(1) No person shall enter or be in the terminal building
of any Government aerodrome or public aerodrome
or part of such building or any other area in such
aerodrome notified in this behalf by the Central
Government unless he holds an admission ticket
issued by the aerodrome operator or an entry pass
issued by the Commissioner of Security (Civil Aviation)
or any person authorized by the Central Government
in this behalf.”
18. Therefore, according to him, the access to an aerodrome and any
activities thereafter are completely governed by the Act and/or the
Rules framed thereunder.
19. He pointed out that similarly, Parts II, III, IV and V of the Aircraft
(Security) Rules, 2011 prescribe the security measures at aerodromes,
the access control, security checks and the other security measures
by aircraft operators. Rule 18 under the above stated Part III regulates
the entry into aerodrome. Further, under the said Aircraft (Security)
Rules, 2011, Rule 2(y) defines “security incident” which includes the
contravention of breach of security laws etc.
20. Further, Rules 45 and 46 of the Aircraft (Security) Rules, 2011
prescribe that any accident / incident has to be reported to the
Commissioner, who shall order an inquiry to be conducted by a
competent officer. Rules 45 and 46 are reproduced herein below:-
“45. Reporting of security accident or incident. -
Every aircraft operator, aviation security group, aerodrome
operator, regulated agent and owner or operator of
catering establishment shall report the security accident
or security incident to the Commissioner immediately on
the occurrence of the security accident or security incident.
46. Investigation of security accident or incident. -
(1) The Commissioner may order investigation of any
security accident or security incident and appoint an officer
not below the rank of Assistant Commissioner of security
as Inquiry Officer.
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1921
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
(2) The Inquiry Officer shall, after affording an opportunity
of being heard to the defaulting person, make a report to
the Commissioner who should forward the same to the
Central Government.”
21. Thus, according to him, even the power of inquiry and investigation
at aerodromes is only vested with authorities as prescribed under
the aforesaid Rules.
22. Since learned senior counsel for the Respondents-accused persons
repeatedly emphasised Section 12B of the Aircraft Act, 1934, the
same is reproduced hereinbelow:
“12B. Cognizance of offences – (1) No court shall take
cognizance of any offence punishable under this Act, save
on a complaint made by or with the previous sanction in
writing by the Director General of Civil Aviation or Director
General of Bureau of Civil Aviation Security or Director
General of Aircraft Accidents Investigation Bureau, as the
case may be.”
23. According to him, admittedly, the procedure under the Special Act,
i.e. the Aircraft Act, 1934 was not followed in the present case. He
submitted that it is a settled principle of law that the provisions of
the special law will prevail over the provisions of the general law, i.e.
the Code. Consequently, according to learned senior counsel for the
Respondents-accused persons, the very power of the State Police
to investigate / inquire has been curtailed by the aforementioned
special procedure.
24. He emphasised that the essence of the entire FIR dated
02nd September, 2022 was that the Respondent No.1 had forcibly
entered the ATC at the Deoghar Airport and pressurized the personnel
therein to grant permission for take-off of their aircraft. He stated
that nothing could be further from the truth as in the present case,
admittedly, the clearance for take-off was given by the ATC, Kolkata
Region due to infrastructural reasons. The take-off was completely
within the permissible limits as regulated by Rule 4 of Schedule II
of the Aircraft Rules, 1937 which states as under:-
“4. Flight by Night –Flight by night for the purpose of this
Schedule, except where otherwise stated, means, a flight
performed between the period of half an hour after sunset
and half an hour before sunrise.”
1922 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
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25. He pointed out that the Appellant’s own Affidavit dated 12th November,
2022 filed by the investigating agency, viz., the Crime Investigation
Department, P.S. Dumka, Jharkhand before the High Court admits
as under:-
“6……..These witnesses have stated that clearance to any
flight for take off from Deoghar Airport is granted by them
after getting clearance from Kolkata region. After getting
clearance from Kolkata Region, the chartered flights was
given ATC clearance at about 18:15 hrs and the flight took
off at about 18:17 hrs.”
26. He stated that it is inconceivable as to why the Respondents-accused
persons would attempt to exert undue influence over the ATC officials
at Deoghar Airport when the ultimate power to grant ATC clearance
was in the hands of the ATC Kolkata authorities.
27. He repeatedly emphasised that none of the allegations in the FIR
made out the offences alleged under IPC. He stated that as the ATC
clearance was granted by the ATC Kolkata Region which is more than
300 Kms. from the Deogarh Airport, the Respondent No.1 cannot
be said to have committed any act endangering the life or safety of
anyone at the Deogarh Airport under Section 336 IPC.
28. He further stated that the allegation that Respondent No.1 pressurized
the officials of ATC Deoghar is proven false by the Appellant-State’s
own Affidavit, inasmuch as, the actual clearance was given by
ATC Kolkata. Thus, there is no question of the Respondent No.1
intimidating the ATC Deogarh officials under Section 447 IPC.
29. He lastly contended that the FIR is one of the many instances,
where the Appellant-State of Jharkhand has filed false FIRs against
the Respondent No.1 and his family. Among others, on three such
occasions, those FIRs have been quashed by the High Court and
the said orders have been upheld by this Court.
COURT’S REASONING
UNDER ARTICLE 226 AND/OR SECTION 482 CODE, HIGH COURT
CAN QUASH AN FIR
30. It is settled law that in exercise of the extraordinary power under
Article 226 of the Constitution of India or the inherent powers under
Section 482 of the Code, it is open to the High Court to quash an FIR
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1923
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
either to prevent abuse of the process of any Court or otherwise to
secure the ends of justice. Though it is not possible to lay down any
precise or rigidly defined formula, yet in State of Haryana & Ors. vs.
Bhajan Lal & Ors., 1992 Suppl.(1) SCC 335, this Court has held
that an FIR can be quashed if the allegations made in the FIR or the
complaint, even if they are taken at their face value and accepted
in their entirety, do not prima facie constitute any offence or make
out a case against the accused or where there is an express legal
bar engrafted in any of the provisions of the Code or the concerned
Act (under which a criminal proceeding is instituted) to the institution
and continuance of the proceedings.
SECTIONS 336, 447 AND 448 IPC ARE NOT MADE OUT IN THE
PRESENT CASE
31. Consequently, it is important to examine the allegations in the
impugned FIR. Accordingly, the FIR in question is reproduced in its
entirety hereinbelow:-
No.JH 713487
FIRST INFORMATION REPORT
(Under Section 154 Cr.P.C.)
1. District: Deoghar, P.S.: Kunda, Year 2022, FIR No.:
0169
Date and Time of FIR: 02/09/2022 00:00 hrs
2. S. No. Acts Sections
(1) IPC 336
(2) IPC 447
(3) IPC 448
(4) Aircrafts Act, 1934 10
(5) Aircrafts Act, 1934 11A
3. (a) Occurrence of Offence:
Day: Wednesday, Date from: 31.08.2022 Date to:
31.08.2022 Time Period: 6 pahar; Time from:
17.25 hrs Time to: 18:00 hrs
(b) Information received at P.S.:
Date: 02.09.2022 Time 00.05 hrs.
1924 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
(c) General Diary Reference: Entry No.: 014
Date & Time: 02.09.2022
4. Type of Information (Written/Oral): Written
1 (a) Direction and distance from P.S.: South-East 8, Beat
No.:
(b) Address: Deoghar Airport, P.S. Kunda
(c) In case, Outside the limit of the Police Station Name of
P.S. District:
6 Complainant/ Informant:
(a) Name: Suman Anan
(b) Father’s/Husband’s Name: Late Rajeshwar Sharma
(c) Date of Birth: 1963
(d) Nationality: Indian
(e) UID No.
(f) Passport No.
Date of Issue: Place of Issue:
(g) Id details (ration Card, Voter ID Card, Passport, UID
No., Driving License, PAN)
S.No. ID Type ID Number
(h) Address:
1. Present Address: Deoghar Airport, Kunda, Deoghar,
Jharkhand, India
2. Permanent Address: Deonagar, Shastrinagar,
Girideah Nagar, Girideah, Jharkhand, India.
7. Details of the known/suspected/unknown accused
with full particulars:
S.N. Name Alias Relative’s Present Address
Name
1 Chartered 1, Unknown
Plane Pilot Kunda, Deoghar,
Jharkhand, India
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1925
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
2 Shree 1, MP Godda
Nishikant Lokshabha Godda
Dubey Magar, Jharkhand,
India
3 Shree Kanishk 1, Unknown,
Kant Dubey Kunda, Deoghar,
Jharkhand, India
4 Shree 1, Unknown,
Mahikant Kunda, Deoghar,
Dubey Jharkhand, India
5 Shree Manoj 1, MP North-East,
Tiwari Delhi Lokshabha,
New Delhi
6 Shree Mukesh 1, Unknown,
Pathak Kunda, Deoghar,
Jharkhand, India
7 Shree Deota 1, Unknown,
Pandey Kunda, Deoghar,
Jharkhand, India
8 Shree Pintu 1, Unknown,
Tiwari Kunda, Deoghar,
Jharkhand, India
9 Shree Sandip 1, Airport Director,
Dhingra Kunda, Deoghar,
Jharkhand, India
8. Reason of delay in giving the complaint/information…….
9. Details of properties of interest:
S.No. Properties Property Type Description Value
Category (In Rs.)
10. Total value of property (In Rs.)
11. Inquest Report/U.D. Case No., if any:
S.NO. UIDB Number:
12. First Information contents:
To, P.S. In charge, Kunda P.S. District Deoghar,
Sub: On 31.08.2022 in the Deoghar Airport Shri Nishikant
Dubey, Hon’ble Member of Parliament Godda and his two
1926 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
sons, Shri Manoj Tewari, Hon’ble Member of Parliament
and others without any permission have entered into the
ATC and created pressure by using their influence upon the
ATC personnel for obtaining forceful ATC Clearance. Sir, I,
Suman Anan, Aged about 59 years, son of Late Rajeshwar
Sharma, Resident of Deo Nagar Shastri Nagar, P.S. Nagar,
District Girideah (Jharkhand), Deputy Superintendent of
Police, presently posted on the post of Security-In-Charge
of the entire Deoghar Airport. Since the day of my posting
I am fulfilling my duties with devotion as per rules. With
respect to the above subject this is to inform you that on
31.08.2022 at 13.05 hrs. a chartered plane from Delhi
reached Deoghar Airport. In that chartered plane following
persons were found: (1) Shri Nishikant Dubey, Hon’ble
Member of Parliament Godda, (2) Shri Kanishkant Dubey,
(3) Shri Mahikant Dubey, (4) Shri Manoj Tiwari, Hon’ble
Member of Parliament. (5) Shri Kapil Mishra, Hon’ble
Member of Parliament, (6) Shri Sheshavri Dubey, (7)
Sh. Sunil Tiwari and others. To receive them, huge numbers
of people were there. After receiving them passengers and
others came out. In the evening at 17.25 hrs the passengers
of Chartered Plane and persons came to see-off them at
Deoghar Airport. All passengers went inside the chartered
plane and the door of the plane was closed. After some
time the door of the plane opened, the pilot came down.
After coming down Pilot started moving towards ATC. Upon
seeing him moving towards ATC, I became alert from the
point of view of security and started walking behind the
pilot. In this regard I would like to mention that at Deoghar
Airport still the Night Take-off/ Landing and IFR facility are
not available. Because of non availability of this facility due
to Low Visibility/ Bad Weather Condition/ After Sunset,
generally it was not possible to give ATC Clearance to
Aircraft. On 31.08.2022 the sunset time at Deoghar was
18.03 hrs and as per my knowledge on that day generally
the Aircraft could be operated till 17.30 hrs only. When
I reached the ATC Control Room, there in the Control
Room Shri Sandeep Dhingra, Director of Airport and Pilot
of Chartered Plane were already present. At that time
the pilot of said Chartered Plane was creating pressure
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1927
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
upon the ATC personnel present at that time and was
saying that the passengers of Chartered Plane necessarily
wanted to return back today itself therefore ATC clearance
be given to them. During this discussion ATC personnel
were talking on the mobile phone regarding clearance.
After some time Shri Nishikant Dubey, Hon’ble Member
of Parliament Godda Parliamentary Constituency, his both
sons Shri Kanishk Kant Dubey, Shri Mahikant Dubey and
Shri Manoj Tiwari, Hon’ble Member of Parliament came
inside the ATC room.
I was surprised and shocked to see the passengers in
the ATC Room and I was feeling uncomfortable. Pilot and
passengers were creating pressure that the clearance be
given to them at the earliest. Thereafter they get the ATC
Clearance. Pilot and passengers departed from the ATC
room. I was observing the Airport security from the ATC
Room. After some time the pilot and passengers again
entered into the chartered plane and thereafter chartered
plane take-off. Therefore keeping in view all the above facts
it is clear that the above mentioned persons have violated
the security measures of operating the airport and entered
into the ATC Room, despite not having availability of, Night
Operation Facility these persons ignoring the security of life
and property of the passengers have created pressure for
ATC Clearance. In this regard it is necessary to mention
that through different modes the public was mentioning
this incident. Today on 01.09.2022 at about 11.30 hrs, for
perusing the entire incident I went into the Control Room.
Upon perusal of C.C.T.V. of the incident I found that on
31.08.2022 Shri Mukesh Pathak, Shri Devta Pandey,
Shri Pintu Tiwari have entered into the ATC building by
violating the security measures. Therefore, keeping in
view the above facts, the above mentioned persons have
violated the security measures, which includes: (1) Pilot of
Chartered Plane, (2) Shri Nishikant Dubey, Hon’ble Member
of Parliament Godda Constituency, (3) Shri Kanishkant
Dubey, (4) Shri Mahikant Dubey, (5) Shri Manoj Tiwari,
Hon’ble Member of Parliament, (6) Shri Mukesh Pathak,
(7) Shri Devta Pandey, (8) Shri Pintu Tiwari and (9)
1928 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
Airport Director Shri Sandeep Dhingra who has committed
negligence in fulfilling his duty and indirectly supported the
passengers to enter and remain present in the ATC Room.
Therefore, kindly register a First Information Report against
all the above persons in the relevant sections and Acts
and proceed further in the matter. Faithfully Sd/- 01.09.22
Suman Annan, Deputy Superintendent of Police, Deoghar
Airport, Deoghar Copy to: (1) Deputy Commissioner,
Deoghar, (2) Deputy Superintendent of Police, Deoghar,
(3) Sub Divisional Police Officer, Sadar, Deoghar
13. Action taken: Since the above information reveals
commission of offence(s) u/s as mentioned at Item No.2.
(1) Registered the case and took up the investigation:
(2) Directed (Name of I.O.): Animanand Roshan Toppo
Rank: SI (Sub Inspector)
No. 1101324 to take up the investigation or
(3) Refused Investigation due to
Or
(4) Transferred to P.S. District
on point of jurisdiction.
F.I.R. Read over to the complainant/ informant admitted to
be correctly recorded and a copy given to the complainant/
informant free of cost.
14. Signature/thumb impression of complainant/ informant
15. Date and time when dispatched to the court
Sd/-02.09.2022
Signature of Officer In-charge
Police Station:
Name: Praveen Kumar
Rank: SI (Sub Inspector)
No.
32. Upon a reading of the aforesaid FIR, this Court is of the view that
offences under Sections 336, 447 and 448 IPC are not made out
in the present case.
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1929
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
33. Section 336 IPC seeks to punish a person who does an act rashly
or negligently and endangers human life or personal safety of
others. To attract Section 336 IPC, the prosecution must allege
that the accused did the act in question; that it was done rashly or
negligently and that it was such as to endanger the life or personal
safety of others.
34. In the present case, the Respondents-accused persons were only
asking the ATC to grant permission for take-off. This Court is of
the view that the action of the pilot and the passengers talking to
ATC officials in the present case cannot be construed as creating
undue or illegal pressure on ATC officials. Moreover, as the aircraft
carrying the Respondents-accused persons had taken off after
obtaining ATC permission, it cannot be said that the Respondents-
accused persons acted rashly or negligently so as to endanger
human lives. Consequently, Section 336 IPC is not attracted to
the present case.
35. Further, it is settled law that every trespass by itself is not criminal.
To constitute criminal trespass the prosecution has to allege that
the trespass was committed with one of the intents enumerated
in Section 441 IPC. Accordingly, the prosecution has to prove that
the complainant had possession of the property in question and
that the accused entered into or upon the property; or after having
lawfully entered unlawfully remained there with the intention (a) to
commit an offence; or (b) to intimidate, insult, or annoy the person
in possession. In the absence of any such allegation, the offence
under Section 441/447 IPC cannot be sustained.
36. In the present case, no allegation of forcible entry or intimidation or
insult or annoyance has been made by any official of ATC. On the
contrary, the Director of Deogarh Airport has been arrayed as an
accused in the FIR! Consequently, Section 447 IPC is not attracted
to the present case.
37. Also, as the ATC office is not a place used as a human dwelling or a
place of worship or a place for the custody of goods, the ingredients
of Section 448 IPC are not attracted to the present case.
38. Consequently, taking Sections 336, 447 and 448 IPC as distinct
offences, no case is made out against the respondents-accused
persons.
1930 [2025] 1 S.C.R.
Supreme Court Reports
SINCE THE AIRCRAFT ACT, 1934 AND THE RULES FRAMED
THEREUNDER CONSTITUTE A COMPLETE CODE AND ITS
SECTION 12B IS IN THE NATURE OF A PRE-CONDITION FOR
TAKING COGNIZANCE BY A COURT, THE LOCAL POLICE CAN
ONLY FORWARD THE MATERIAL COLLECTED BY IT TO SUCH
AUTHORISED OFFICER.
39. This Court is further of the view that the Aircraft Act, 1934 as well
as the Rules framed thereunder [including Rule 14(ix) of Airport
(Security) Rules, 2011] is a complete Code which deals with safety
and security of civil aviation and aerodrome. The Aircraft Act, 1934
also prescribes a special procedure for taking cognizance of any
offence punishable under the Aircraft Act, 1934 i.e, the complaint
must be made by or with the prior sanction of the Aviation authorities.
Section 12B is in the nature of a pre-condition for taking cognizance
by a Court.
40. Section 5 of the Code stipulates that “if any special law or local law
for the time being in force contemplates any special jurisdiction or
power or any special form of procedure prescribed, unless there
is something to the contrary, to be found, it is the provisions of the
special law or the local law which would prevail.” Further, Clause
(2) of Section 4, Code mandates that “all offences under any
other law shall be investigated, inquired into, tried, and otherwise
dealt with according to the same provisions, but subject to any
enactment for the time being in force regulating the manner or
place of investigation, inquiring into, trying or otherwise dealing
with such offences.”
41. Consequently, as a complaint can be made/filed by an authorised
officer alone under the Special Act i.e. the Aircrafts Act, 1934, before
the concerned Court, the local police can only forward the material
collected by it during the investigation to such authorised officer. It
shall be open to the authorised officer to take a decision in accordance
with law with regard to filing or non-filing of a complaint.
CONCLUSION
42. Keeping in view the aforesaid findings, the present appeals are
dismissed with liberty to the Appellate-State of Jharkhand to forward
the material collected by it during investigation to such authorised
[2025] 1 S.C.R. 1931
State of Jharkhand v. Dr. Nishkant Dubey & Ors.
officer under the Aircraft Act, 1934 within four weeks, who shall
take a decision in accordance with law as to whether a complaint
needs to be filed under the Aircraft Act, 1934 and the Rules framed
thereunder.
Result of the case: Appeals dismissed.
†
Headnotes prepared by: Himanshu Rai, Hony. Associate Editor
(Verified by: Kanu Agrawal, Adv.)
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